Quick Biochemistry - Nucleic Acids (Section 9)

  • 1
    What is a possible outcome of a base alteration?
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    (D)
    All of the above
  • 2
    Which type of mutation is most likely to have no impact on the protein produced?
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    (B)
    Substitution at the end of a codon
  • 3
    The impact of a mutation that changes the amino acid sequence can be best described as
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    (D)
    Any of the above
  • 4
    Which scenario results in no alteration to the protein's amino acid sequence?
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    (A)
    Mutation that doesn't change the protein's function
  • 5
    Sickle cell anemia is caused by what kind of mutation?
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    (D)
    A mutation where the protein's function is somewhat changed
  • 6
    If a codon on mRNA becomes a stop codon due to a base change in the DNA, what type of mutation has occurred?
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    (C)
    A mutation that ends protein synthesis early
  • 7
    What is a consequence of adding a base to a gene?
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    (D)
    All of the above
  • 8
    A frameshift mutation changes the way genetic information is read because the genetic code
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    (C)
    Has no spaces or punctuation
  • 9
    Where do suppressor mutations typically happen?
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    (D)
    tRNA molecules
  • 10
    What can neutralize the effects of mutations in protein-coding regions?
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    (A)
    Protein-coding regions
  • 11
    Alterations within the promoter regions of genes can lead to what outcome?
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    (C)
    Reduced effectiveness of transcription
  • 12
    The production of proteins within mitochondria is blocked by which substance?
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    (B)
    Chloramphenicol
  • 13
    Which of the following is NOT a correct description of puromycin?
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    (A)
    It is a molecule that resembles alanyl tRNA
  • 14
    In certain helical proteins, the leucine zipper motif is observed when leucine amino acids appear at intervals of how many positions?
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    (C)
    Every 7th position
  • 15
    The zinc finger motif in some proteins is created by the attachment of zinc to which elements?
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    (D)
    Two cysteine and two histidine residues or two pairs of two cysteine residues each
  • 16
    Where are restriction endonucleases naturally found?
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    (B)
    Bacteria
  • 17
    Restriction endonucleases cleave what type of molecule?
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    (C)
    Double stranded DNA
  • 18
    Restriction endonucleases are capable of recognizing what type of sequences?
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    (A)
    Palindromic sequences
  • 19
    Which statement about restriction endonucleases is incorrect?
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    (D)
    They always create cohesive ends
  • 20
    Which of the following represents a palindromic sequence?
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    (C)
    5'-CGAAGC-3'
  • 21
    What is a characteristic of sticky ends generated by restriction enzymes?
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    (C)
    The ends of the DNA fragment have overlapping segments.
  • 22
    Which of the following is generally NOT used as an expression vector?
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    (D)
    E. coli host organism
  • 23
    What best describes a plasmid?
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    (D)
    Double stranded circular DNA
  • 24
    What method is employed to locate specific DNA fragments?
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    (D)
    Southern blotting
  • 25
    Which blotting technique is most suitable for identifying a specific RNA molecule within a sample?
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    (C)
    Northern blotting
  • 26
    What technique utilizes a radioactive, labeled cDNA probe?
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    (C)
    Both Southern and Northern blotting
  • 27
    Which blotting technique employs antibody probes for detection?
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    (C)
    Western blotting
  • 28
    How are specific proteins identified within a complex mixture?
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    (C)
    Western blotting
  • 29
    Which protein was the initial product of recombinant DNA technology?
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    (D)
    Human insulin
  • 30
    If you want bacteria to produce a eukaryotic protein, what is the typical DNA template?
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    (C)
    mRNA
  • 31
    What is used to prepare monoclonal antibodies through the cloning process?
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    (B)
    Hybridoma cells
  • 32
    What enzyme is deficient in Myeloma cells?
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    (C)
    HGPRT
  • 33
    What components are included in the culture medium used to select Hybridoma cells?
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    (D)
    Hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thymidine
  • 34
    What is used to fuse Myeloma cells and lymphocytes?
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    (C)
    Polyethylene glycol
  • 35
    In which genetic condition were the initial successful gene therapy trials conducted in humans?
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    (C)
    Adenosine deaminase deficiency
  • 36
    What is a characteristic of Chimeric DNA?
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    (B)
    Contains unrelated genes
  • 37
    Which of the following can serve as a cloning vector?
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    (D)
    All of these
  • 38
    The plasmid pBR322 includes
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    (C)
    Both (A) and (B)
  • 39
    What is the maximum size of DNA fragments that can be cloned using Lambda phage?
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    (B)
    Upto 20 kilobases
  • 40
    DNA fragments of up to what size can be cloned using Cosmids?
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    (C)
    Cosmids
  • 41
    A cosmid is best described as a
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    (C)
    A combination of plasmid and phage
  • 42
    The polymerase chain reaction is capable of quickly multiplying DNA segments up to what length?
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    (A)
    Up to 10 kilobases
  • 43
    The most common source of DNA polymerase utilized in the polymerase chain reaction is
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    (C)
    T. aquaticus
  • 44
    Which method(s) can be used to determine the specific sequence of bases in DNA?
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    (C)
    Both Maxam-Gilbert and Sanger's dideoxy methods
  • 45
    What substance is needed to separate DNA from a DNA-RNA hybrid?
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    (D)
    Alkali
  • 46
    At what temperature does the DNA polymerase from T. aquaticus function most effectively?
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    (D)
    72°C
  • 47
    Besides Taq polymerase, what other ingredients are not required for the polymerase chain reaction to work?
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    (D)
    Primase
  • 48
    Why is the DNA polymerase from T. aquaticus preferred to that of E. coli in PCR?
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    (C)
    It is not deactivated at the melting temperature of DNA
  • 49
    After twenty cycles of PCR, the DNA would be amplified to
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    (A)
    220 times
  • 50
    The method for creating transgenic animals typically involves introducing a gene into
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    (D)
    A fertilized egg and placing it in a surrogate mother