Quick Biochemistry - Nucleic Acids (Section 9)
1
What is a possible outcome of a base alteration?
2
Which type of mutation is most likely to have no impact on the protein produced?
Answer(B)
Substitution at the end of a codon
3
The impact of a mutation that changes the amino acid sequence can be best described as
4
Which scenario results in no alteration to the protein's amino acid sequence?
Answer(A)
Mutation that doesn't change the protein's function
5
Sickle cell anemia is caused by what kind of mutation?
Answer(D)
A mutation where the protein's function is somewhat changed
6
If a codon on mRNA becomes a stop codon due to a base change in the DNA, what type of mutation has occurred?
Answer(C)
A mutation that ends protein synthesis early
7
What is a consequence of adding a base to a gene?
8
A frameshift mutation changes the way genetic information is read because the genetic code
Answer(C)
Has no spaces or punctuation
9
Where do suppressor mutations typically happen?
10
What can neutralize the effects of mutations in protein-coding regions?
11
Alterations within the promoter regions of genes can lead to what outcome?
Answer(C)
Reduced effectiveness of transcription
12
The production of proteins within mitochondria is blocked by which substance?
13
Which of the following is NOT a correct description of puromycin?
Answer(A)
It is a molecule that resembles alanyl tRNA
14
In certain helical proteins, the leucine zipper motif is observed when leucine amino acids appear at intervals of how many positions?
15
The zinc finger motif in some proteins is created by the attachment of zinc to which elements?
Answer(D)
Two cysteine and two histidine residues or two pairs of two cysteine residues each
16
Where are restriction endonucleases naturally found?
17
Restriction endonucleases cleave what type of molecule?
18
Restriction endonucleases are capable of recognizing what type of sequences?
19
Which statement about restriction endonucleases is incorrect?
Answer(D)
They always create cohesive ends
20
Which of the following represents a palindromic sequence?
21
What is a characteristic of sticky ends generated by restriction enzymes?
Answer(C)
The ends of the DNA fragment have overlapping segments.
22
Which of the following is generally NOT used as an expression vector?
23
What best describes a plasmid?
Answer(D)
Double stranded circular DNA
24
What method is employed to locate specific DNA fragments?
25
Which blotting technique is most suitable for identifying a specific RNA molecule within a sample?
26
What technique utilizes a radioactive, labeled cDNA probe?
Answer(C)
Both Southern and Northern blotting
27
Which blotting technique employs antibody probes for detection?
28
How are specific proteins identified within a complex mixture?
29
Which protein was the initial product of recombinant DNA technology?
30
If you want bacteria to produce a eukaryotic protein, what is the typical DNA template?
31
What is used to prepare monoclonal antibodies through the cloning process?
32
What enzyme is deficient in Myeloma cells?
33
What components are included in the culture medium used to select Hybridoma cells?
Answer(D)
Hypoxanthine, aminopterin and thymidine
34
What is used to fuse Myeloma cells and lymphocytes?
35
In which genetic condition were the initial successful gene therapy trials conducted in humans?
Answer(C)
Adenosine deaminase deficiency
36
What is a characteristic of Chimeric DNA?
37
Which of the following can serve as a cloning vector?
38
The plasmid pBR322 includes
39
What is the maximum size of DNA fragments that can be cloned using Lambda phage?
40
DNA fragments of up to what size can be cloned using Cosmids?
41
A cosmid is best described as a
Answer(C)
A combination of plasmid and phage
42
The polymerase chain reaction is capable of quickly multiplying DNA segments up to what length?
43
The most common source of DNA polymerase utilized in the polymerase chain reaction is
44
Which method(s) can be used to determine the specific sequence of bases in DNA?
Answer(C)
Both Maxam-Gilbert and Sanger's dideoxy methods
45
What substance is needed to separate DNA from a DNA-RNA hybrid?
46
At what temperature does the DNA polymerase from T. aquaticus function most effectively?
47
Besides Taq polymerase, what other ingredients are not required for the polymerase chain reaction to work?
48
Why is the DNA polymerase from T. aquaticus preferred to that of E. coli in PCR?
Answer(C)
It is not deactivated at the melting temperature of DNA
49
After twenty cycles of PCR, the DNA would be amplified to
50
The method for creating transgenic animals typically involves introducing a gene into
Answer(D)
A fertilized egg and placing it in a surrogate mother
