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Quick Biochemistry - Fats And Fatty Acid Metabolism (Section 2)

1
What enzyme deficiency is associated with Tyrosinosis?
Answer
(A)
Fumarylacetoacetate hydrolase
2
Which of the following is a key characteristic of Histidinemia?
Answer
(B)
Speech defect
3
What is a notable symptom of glycinuria?
Answer
(D)
Defect in renal tubular reabsorption of glycine
4
Elevated urinary indole acetic acid is indicative of which condition?
Answer
(B)
Hartnup disease
5
In individuals with glycinuria, what is the typical daily urinary excretion range for glycine?
Answer
(C)
600-1000 mg
6
What enzyme deficiency underlies maple syrup urine disease, an inherited metabolic disorder?
Answer
(D)
a-Ketoacid decarboxylase
7
By what point in postnatal life does maple syrup urine disease typically manifest?
Answer
(A)
First week
8
Which enzyme deficiency is the cause of Alkaptonuria?
Answer
(B)
Homogentisate oxidase
9
What is a significant characteristic of maple syrup urine disease?
Answer
(D)
Excessive brain damage
10
Ochronosis is a prominent finding in which of the following conditions?
Answer
(C)
Alkaptonuria
11
A lack of which of the following causes Phrynoderma?
Answer
(A)
Essential fatty acids
12
What is the approximate linoleic acid content in safflower oil?
Answer
(A)
73
13
Approximately what percentage of soybean oil is composed of polyunsaturated fatty acids?
Answer
(A)
62
14
What is the approximate polyunsaturated fatty acid content of butter?
Answer
(D)
3
15
What best describes dietary fiber?
Answer
(B)
Plant cell components that cannot be digested by own enzymes
16
Which condition is a high-fiber diet linked to a decreased risk of?
Answer
(A)
Cardiovascular disease
17
Dietary fibers are primarily comprised of which substance?
Answer
(A)
Cellulose
18
Which of the following foods contains the least amount of dietary fiber?
Answer
(B)
Peas
19
A bland diet is often prescribed for the treatment of which condition?
Answer
(A)
Peptic ulcer
20
A diet lacking both sufficient protein and adequate protein quality leads to which of the following?
Answer
(A)
Kwashiorkar
21
A lack of both calories and protein leads to which condition?
Answer
(A)
Marasmus
22
What is a common sign of Kwashiorkor?
Answer
(B)
Edema
23
Which of the following is a typical sign of Kwashiorkor?
Answer
(A)
Fatty liver
24
What is a common feature of marasmus?
Answer
(D)
Low insulin and high cortisol levels
25
Excessive calorie consumption often results in obesity and increases the risk of developing
Answer
(B)
Type 2 diabetes
26
A diet high in which of the following is linked to atherosclerosis and heart disease?
Answer
(A)
High in total fat and saturated fat
27
What dietary factor is associated with cerebrovascular disease and high blood pressure?
Answer
(B)
High salt intake
28
What is considered a typical range for overall bilirubin levels in blood?
Answer
(A)
0.2-1.2 mg/100 ml
29
What is the typical range for direct bilirubin in blood?
Answer
(B)
0.1-0.4 mg/100 ml
30
What is the usual range for indirect bilirubin in blood?
Answer
(C)
0.2-0.7 mg/100 ml
31
At what level of serum bilirubin does jaundice typically become noticeable?
Answer
(C)
1 mg/100 ml
32
Which type of jaundice is associated with elevated levels of unconjugated bilirubin in the blood?
Answer
(A)
Hemolytic jaundice
33
Which of the following conditions can lead to hemolytic jaundice?
Answer
(A)
G-6 phosphatase deficiency
34
The presence of increased urobilinogen and the absence of bilirubin in urine is indicative of which condition?
Answer
(A)
Obstructive jaundice
35
In which type of jaundice are serum alanine transaminase and alkaline phosphatase levels typically within the normal range?
Answer
(B)
Hemolytic jaundice
36
In which condition is fecal stercobilinogen typically elevated?
Answer
(B)
Hepatic jaundice
37
In which condition is fecal urobilinogen often found to be increased?
Answer
(A)
Hemolytic jaundice
38
In which type of jaundice would you expect to find a mixture of conjugated and unconjugated bilirubin in the bloodstream?
Answer
(B)
Hepatic jaundice
39
How does hepatocellular jaundice typically differ from pure obstructive jaundice in terms of certain enzyme levels?
Answer
(D)
Decreased serum alkaline phosphatase and increased serum LDH and ALT
40
What is the typical range for the icteric index in a healthy adult?
Answer
(C)
4-6
41
At what icteric index value is clinical jaundice typically observed?
Answer
(D)
15
42
Approximately how much urobilinogen is typically found in daily fecal excretion?
Answer
(B)
50-250 mg
43
Which condition is associated with a reduction in fecal urobilinogen levels?
Answer
(A)
Obstruction of biliary duct
44
What does a complete lack of fecal urobilinogen strongly indicate?
Answer
(D)
Malignant obstructive disease
45
A prompt direct Vanden Bergh reaction is indicative of which type of jaundice?
Answer
(B)
Hepatic jaundice
46
The presence of bilirubin in urine without urobilinogen points toward what condition?
Answer
(A)
Obstructive jaundice
47
A failed galactose tolerance test might suggest a problem with what?
Answer
(B)
Liver cell injury
48
Elevated serum ornithine carabamoyl transferase activity is a key indicator for which condition?
Answer
(D)
Acute viral hepatitis
49
Which liver function test is most commonly employed to evaluate the organ's detoxification capabilities?
Answer
(A)
Hippuric acid test
50
What does the liver's capacity to clear a substance like BSP from the bloodstream reflect?
Answer
(A)
Excretory function