JEE Advance - Chemistry (1998 - No. 7)
Explanation
We know, $$\Delta$$Tf = kf $$\times$$ molality of solution (m)
Given, kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol$$-$$1
$$\therefore$$ 0.30 = 1.86 $$\times$$ molality of solution (m)
$$\therefore$$ m = $${{0.30} \over {1.86}}$$ or, m = 0.161 mol kg$$-$$1
According to Raoult's law, $${{{p^0} - p} \over {{p^0}}} = {x_2} \approx {{{n_2}} \over {{n_1}}}$$
Amount of water in solution n1 $$\times$$ 18 g
Molality of the solution $${{{n_2}} \over {{n_1} \times 18}} \times 1000 = {{55.55 \times {n_2}} \over {{n_1}}}$$ mol kg$$-$$1
But, molality calculated from f. p. depression = 0.161 mol kg$$-$$1
$$\therefore$$ $${{55.55 \times {n_2}} \over {{n_1}}} = 0.0161$$ or, $${{{n_2}} \over {{n_1}}} = 1.09 \times {10^{ - 3}}$$
Given : p0 = 23.51 mm Hg
$$\therefore$$ $${{23.51 - p} \over {23.51}} = {{{n_2}} \over {{n_1}}} = 1.09 \times {10^{ - 3}}$$
$$\therefore$$ p = 23.48 mm Hg
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